1A7S;	P20160;	1.12;	HEPARIN BINDING PROTEIN
1AAC;	P22364;	1.31;	AMICYANIN
1BXA;	P22364;	1.30;	PROTEIN (AMICYANIN)
1F94;	P81782;	0.97;	BUCANDIN
1FL0;	Q12904;	1.50;	ENDOTHELIAL-MONOCYTE ACTIVATING POLYPEPTIDE II
1GP0;	P11717;	1.40;	CATION-INDEPENDENT MANNOSE-6-PHOSPHATE RECEPTOR
1GV9;	Q62902;	1.46;	P58/ERGIC-53
1GWM;	Q9C171;	1.15;	NON-CATALYTIC PROTEIN 1
1H4A;	P07320;	1.15;	GAMMA CRYSTALLIN D
1HK0;	P07320;	1.25;	GAMMA CRYSTALLIN D
1IFR;	P02545;	1.40;	Lamin A/C
1K5C;	P79074;	0.96;	ENDOPOLYGALACTURONASE
1KCC;	P79074;	1.00;	ENDOPOLYGALACTURONASE
1LMI;	P97155;	1.50;	Immunogenic protein MPT63/MPB63
1M9Z;	P37173;	1.05;	TGF-BETA RECEPTOR TYPE II
1MFM;	P00441;	1.02;	PROTEIN (COPPER,ZINC SUPEROXIDE DISMUTASE)
1NKG;	Q00019;	1.50;	Rhamnogalacturonase B
1NKO;	Q9Y286;	1.45;	Sialic acid binding Ig-like lectin 7
1NOA;	P0A3R9;	1.50;	NEOCARZINOSTATIN
1O4Y;	Q9RGX9;	1.48;	beta-agarase A
1O8S;	Q8GJ44;	1.15;	PUTATIVE ENDO-XYLANASE
1OA4;	Q9KIH1;	1.50;	ENDO-BETA-1,4-GLUCANASE
1OAL;	P00446;	1.50;	SUPEROXIDE DISMUTASE
1OD3;	Q8GJ44;	1.00;	PUTATIVE XYLANASE
1OH4;	Q9RIK9;	1.35;	BETA-MANNOSIDASE
1OK0;	P01092;	0.93;	ALPHA-AMYLASE INHIBITOR HOE-467A
1PJX;	Q7SIG4;	0.85;	DIISOPROPYLFLUOROPHOSPHATASE
1PKO;	Q63345;	1.45;	Myelin Oligodendrocyte Glycoprotein
1PMH;	P77847;	1.06;	beta-1,4-mannanase
1PWA;	O95750;	1.30;	Fibroblast growth factor-19
1SF3;	P22364;	1.05;	Amicyanin
1SO7;	Q9Y3R4;	1.49;	Sialidase 2
1SSX;	P00778;	0.83;	Alpha-lytic protease
1T2J;	N/A;	1.50;	M12-Variable Heavy domain
1TG0;	P47068;	0.97;	Myosin tail region-interacting protein MTI1
1U2H;	Q15772;	0.96;	Aortic preferentially expressed protein 1
1UOY;	P83799;	1.50;	BUBBLE PROTEIN
1UV4;	P94522;	1.50;	ARABINAN-ENDO 1,5-ALPHA-L-ARABINASE
1UX7;	P45796;	1.50;	ENDO-1,4-BETA-XYLANASE D
1V70;	N/A;	1.30;	probable antibiotics synthesis protein
1VB0;	P80958;	0.92;	Cobrotoxin b
1W8T;	Q9C171;	1.40;	NON CATALYTIC PROTEIN 1
1W8U;	Q9C171;	1.30;	NON CATALYTIC PROTEIN 1
1WCU;	Q9C171;	1.50;	NON-CATALYTIC PROTEIN 1
1X9Q;	P06310;	1.50;	4m5.3 anti-fluorescein single chain antibody fragment
1XT5;	Q8I9N0;	1.15;	variable region-containing chitin-binding protein 3
1YFQ;	P26449;	1.10;	Cell cycle arrest protein BUB3
1YJ2;	N/A;	1.50;	Green Fluorescent Protein
1ZEQ;	P77214;	1.50;	Cation efflux system protein cusF
1ZGK;	Q14145;	1.35;	Kelch-like ECH-associated protein 1
1ZGT;	P02528;	1.45;	Gamma crystallin E
1ZIR;	P02528;	1.36;	Gamma crystallin E
1ZK5;	Q9RH91;	1.40;	F17G adhesin subunit
1ZLM;	Q92882;	1.07;	Osteoclast stimulating factor 1
1ZV9;	N/A;	1.28;	Cellulosomal scaffoldin adaptor protein B
2A6Y;	P43555;	1.42;	Emp47p (form1)
2A6Z;	P43555;	1.00;	Emp47p (form2)
2AQM;	P15453;	1.10;	Superoxide dismutase [Cu-Zn]
2BF6;	Q59310;	0.97;	EXO-ALPHA-SIALIDASE
2BVV;	P09850;	1.50;	PROTEIN (ENDO-1,4-BETA-XYLANASE)
2BWQ;	Q9JIS1;	1.41;	REGULATING SYNAPTIC MEMBRANE EXOCYTOSIS PROTEIN 2
2BZU;	P16883;	1.50;	FIBER PROTEIN 2
2BZV;	P16883;	1.15;	FIBER PROTEIN 2
2CAK;	P24930;	1.27;	RUSTICYANIN
2CAL;	P24930;	1.10;	RUSTICYANIN
2DE9;	P00772;	1.30;	Elastase-1
2FJ8;	P12940;	1.19;	Bowman-Birk type trypsin inhibitor
2FR2;	O07216;	1.50;	hypothetical protein Rv2717c
2FRG;	Q8IWY1;	1.19;	trem-like transcript-1
2G6F;	O55043;	0.92;	Rho guanine nucleotide exchange factor 7
2G8C;	P14013;	1.15;	outer surface protein A
2GBA;	P22364;	0.92;	amicyanin
2H14;	P61964;	1.48;	WD-repeat protein 5
2H5P;	N/A;	1.21;	mStrawberry
2HLQ;	Q4ZG08;	1.45;	Bone morphogenetic protein receptor type-2
2IAV;	Q7SIG4;	1.07;	Diisopropylfluorophosphatase
2IDQ;	P22364;	0.90;	Amicyanin
2MCM;	P01549;	1.50;	MACROMOMYCIN
2NMO;	P17931;	1.35;	Galectin-3
2NN8;	P17931;	1.35;	Galectin-3
2OFZ;	P59595;	1.17;	Nucleocapsid protein
2P39;	Q9GZV9;	1.50;	Fibroblast growth factor 23
2PLT;	P18068;	1.50;	PLASTOCYANIN
2PND;	Q80WA3;	1.00;	V-set and immunoglobulin domain containing 4
2RAC;	P22364;	1.30;	PROTEIN (AMICYANIN)
2ULL;	P00778;	1.50;	ALPHA-LYTIC PROTEASE
3EBX;	Q90VW1;	1.40;	ERABUTOXIN B
3EZM;	P81180;	1.50;	PROTEIN (CYANOVIRIN-N)
4GCR;	P02526;	1.47;	GAMMA-B CRYSTALLIN