135L;	P00703;	1.30;	TURKEY EGG WHITE LYSOZYME
193L;	P00698;	1.33;	LYSOZYME
194L;	P00698;	1.40;	LYSOZYME
1AB1;	P01542;	0.89;	CRAMBIN (SER22/ILE25)
1ABA;	P00276;	1.45;	GLUTAREDOXIN
1AGI;	P10152;	1.50;	ANGIOGENIN
1AGY;	P00590;	1.15;	CUTINASE
1AHO;	P01484;	0.96;	TOXIN II
1AKI;	P00698;	1.50;	LYSOZYME
1B0Y;	P00260;	0.93;	PROTEIN (HIPIP)
1B6G;	P22643;	1.15;	HALOALKANE DEHALOGENASE
1B9O;	P00709;	1.15;	PROTEIN (ALPHA-LACTALBUMIN)
1BIO;	P00746;	1.50;	COMPLEMENT FACTOR D
1BK0;	P05326;	1.30;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHASE
1BLZ;	Q5BA08;	1.45;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHASE
1BN6;	P59336;	1.50;	HALOALKANE DEHALOGENASE
1BN7;	P59336;	1.50;	HALOALKANE DEHALOGENASE
1BPI;	P00974;	1.09;	BOVINE PANCREATIC TRYPSIN INHIBITOR
1BQC;	Q9ZF13;	1.50;	PROTEIN (BETA-MANNANASE)
1BQK;	P19567;	1.35;	PSEUDOAZURIN
1BTY;	P00760;	1.50;	BETA-TRYPSIN
1BYQ;	P07900;	1.50;	PROTEIN (HEAT SHOCK PROTEIN 90)
1C1N;	P00760;	1.40;	TRYPSIN
1C9N;	P29600;	1.50;	SERINE PROTEASE
1CCR;	P00055;	1.50;	CYTOCHROME C
1CEX;	P00590;	1.00;	CUTINASE
1CIP;	P10824;	1.50;	PROTEIN (GUANINE NUCLEOTIDE-BINDING PROTEIN ALPHA-1 SUBUNIT)
1CNR;	P01542;	1.05;	CRAMBIN
1CQW;	P59336;	1.50;	HALOALKANE DEHALOGENASE; 1-CHLOROHEXANE HALIDOHYDROLASE
1CRN;	P01542;	1.50;	CRAMBIN
1CTQ;	P01112;	1.26;	PROTEIN (TRANSFORMING PROTEIN P21/H-RAS-1)
1CUS;	P00590;	1.25;	CUTINASE
1CXQ;	P03354;	1.02;	AVIAN SARCOMA VIRUS INTEGRASE
1CYO;	P00171;	1.50;	CYTOCHROME B5
1CZB;	P03354;	1.06;	AVIAN SARCOMA VIRUS INTEGRASE
1D06;	P10955;	1.40;	nitrogen fixation regulatory protein fixL
1D2U;	Q94734;	1.15;	NITROPHORIN 4
1D3S;	Q94734;	1.40;	NITROPHORIN 4
1D4O;	P11024;	1.21;	NADP(H) TRANSHYDROGENASE
1D5T;	P21856;	1.04;	GUANINE NUCLEOTIDE DISSOCIATION INHIBITOR
1D7E;	P16113;	1.39;	PHOTOACTIVE YELLOW PROTEIN
1DS1;	Q05581;	1.08;	CLAVAMINATE SYNTHASE 1
1DYQ;	P0A0L2;	1.50;	STAPHYLOCOCCAL ENTEROTOXIN A MUTANT
1E58;	P62707;	1.25;	PHOSPHOGLYCERATE MUTASE
1E5K;	P32173;	1.35;	MOLYBDOPTERIN-GUANINE DINUCLEOTIDE BIOSYNTHESIS PROTEIN A
1EA7;	Q9S3L6;	0.93;	SERINE PROTEASE
1EAX;	Q9Y5Y6;	1.30;	SUPPRESSOR OF TUMORIGENICITY 14
1EAZ;	Q9HB21;	1.40;	TANDEM PH DOMAIN CONTAINING PROTEIN-1
1EB6;	P46076;	1.00;	NEUTRAL PROTEASE II
1EHD;	Q9S7B3;	1.50;	AGGLUTININ ISOLECTIN VI
1EIC;	P61823;	1.40;	RIBONUCLEASE A
1EJ0;	P0C0R7;	1.50;	FTSJ
1EJG;	P01542;	0.54;	CRAMBIN (PRO22,SER22/LEU25,ILE25)
1EK0;	P36017;	1.48;	PROTEIN (GTP-BINDING PROTEIN YPT51)
1EQM;	P26281;	1.50;	6-HYDROXYMETHYL-7,8-DIHYDROPTERIN PYROPHOSPHOKINASE
1ERX;	Q94734;	1.40;	NITROPHORIN 4
1ES5;	P39042;	1.40;	DD-TRANSPEPTIDASE
1EW0;	P10955;	1.40;	FIXL
1EW4;	P27838;	1.40;	CYAY PROTEIN
1EXR;	P07463;	1.00;	CALMODULIN
1EYT;	P80176;	1.50;	HIGH-POTENTIAL IRON-SULFUR PROTEIN
1EZM;	P14756;	1.50;	PSEUDOMONAS ELASTASE
1F21;	P0A7Y4;	1.40;	RIBONUCLEASE HI
1F24;	P23295;	1.40;	NITRIC OXIDE REDUCTASE
1F4P;	P00323;	1.30;	FLAVODOXIN
1F8D;	P03472;	1.40;	NEURAMINIDASE
1F8E;	P03472;	1.40;	NEURAMINIDASE
1F8N;	P08170;	1.40;	LIPOXYGENASE-1
1F98;	P16113;	1.15;	PHOTOACTIVE YELLOW PROTEIN
1F9H;	P26281;	1.50;	6-HYDROXYMETHYL-7,8-DIHYDROPTERIN PYROPHOSPHOKINASE
1F9I;	P16113;	1.10;	PHOTOACTIVE YELLOW PROTEIN
1F9T;	P17119;	1.50;	KINESIN-LIKE PROTEIN KAR3
1F9V;	P17119;	1.30;	KINESIN-LIKE PROTEIN KAR3
1F9Y;	P26281;	0.89;	PROTEIN (6-HYDROXYMETHYL-7,8-DIHYDROPTERIN PYROPHOSPHOKINASE)
1FGY;	O08967;	1.50;	GRP1
1FMK;	P12931;	1.50;	TYROSINE-PROTEIN KINASE SRC
1FO8;	P27115;	1.40;	ALPHA-1,3-MANNOSYL-GLYCOPROTEIN BETA-1,2-N-ACETYLGLUCOSAMINYLTRANSFERASE
1FS3;	P61823;	1.40;	Ribonuclease A
1FW9;	P26602;	1.40;	CHORISMATE LYASE
1G1T;	P16581;	1.50;	E-SELECTIN
1G3P;	P69168;	1.46;	MINOR COAT PROTEIN
1G4I;	P00593;	0.97;	PHOSPHOLIPASE A2
1G7N;	P04117;	1.50;	ADIPOCYTE LIPID-BINDING PROTEIN
1G8A;	O57811;	1.40;	FIBRILLARIN-LIKE PRE-RRNA PROCESSING PROTEIN
1G9O;	O14745;	1.50;	NHE-RF
1GCI;	P29600;	0.78;	SUBTILISIN
1GCU;	P46844;	1.40;	BILIVERDIN REDUCTASE A
1GGZ;	P27482;	1.50;	CALMODULIN-RELATED PROTEIN NB-1
1GI3;	P00760;	1.44;	BETA-TRYPSIN
1GMX;	P0A6V5;	1.10;	GLPE PROTEIN
1GOK;	P23360;	1.14;	ENDO-1,4-BETA-XYLANASE
1GQV;	P10153;	0.98;	EOSINOPHIL-DERIVED NEUROTOXIN
1GS5;	P0A6C8;	1.50;	ACETYLGLUTAMATE KINASE
1GVO;	P71278;	1.38;	PENTAERYTHRITOL TETRANITRATE REDUCTASE
1GVZ;	Q6H321;	1.42;	KALLIKREIN
1GWU;	P00433;	1.31;	PEROXIDASE C1A
1GXN;	Q9F7L3;	1.50;	PECTATE LYASE
1GXT;	P30131;	1.27;	HYDROGENASE MATURATION PROTEIN HYPF
1GZ2;	Q9PRS8;	1.50;	OVOCLEIDIN
1GZ8;	P24941;	1.30;	CELL DIVISION PROTEIN KINASE 2
1H05;	P0A4Z6;	1.50;	3-DEHYDROQUINATE DEHYDRATASE
1H10;	P31749;	1.40;	RAC-ALPHA SERINE/THREONINE KINASE
1H11;	O85465;	1.08;	ENDOGLUCANASE 5A
1H2J;	O85465;	1.15;	ENDOGLUCANASE 5A
1H5V;	O85465;	1.10;	ENDOGLUCANASE 5A
1HDO;	P30043;	1.15;	BILIVERDIN IX BETA REDUCTASE
1HE3;	P30043;	1.40;	BILIVERDIN IX BETA REDUCTASE
1HF6;	O85465;	1.15;	ENDOGLUCANASE B
1HG7;	P19614;	1.15;	HPLC-12 TYPE III ANTIFREEZE PROTEIN
1HJ8;	P35031;	1.00;	TRYPSIN I
1HKA;	P26281;	1.50;	6-HYDROXYMETHYL-7,8-DIHYDROPTERIN PYROPHOSPHOKINASE
1HMR;	P05413;	1.40;	MUSCLE FATTY ACID BINDING PROTEIN
1HQ2;	P26281;	1.25;	6-HYDROXYMETHYL-7,8-DIHYDROPTERIN PYROPHOSPHOKINASE
1HT6;	P00693;	1.50;	ALPHA-AMYLASE ISOZYME 1
1HZT;	Q46822;	1.45;	ISOPENTENYL DIPHOSPHATE DELTA-ISOMERASE
1I0V;	P00651;	1.23;	GUANYL-SPECIFIC RIBONUCLEASE T1
1I1N;	P22061;	1.50;	PROTEIN-L-ISOASPARTATE O-METHYLTRANSFERASE
1I1X;	P23360;	1.11;	ENDO-1,4-BETA-XYLANASE
1I5G;	O77093;	1.40;	TRYPAREDOXIN II
1I8O;	P00091;	1.15;	CYTOCHROME C2
1IC6;	P06873;	0.98;	PROTEINASE K
1ICM;	P02693;	1.50;	INTESTINAL FATTY ACID BINDING PROTEIN
1IEE;	P00698;	0.94;	LYSOZYME C
1IFC;	P02693;	1.19;	INTESTINAL FATTY ACID BINDING PROTEIN
1IG5;	P02633;	1.50;	VITAMIN D-DEPENDENT CALCIUM-BINDING PROTEIN, INTESTINAL
1IGD;	P06654;	1.10;	PROTEIN G
1IKE;	Q94734;	1.50;	Nitrophorin 4
1IKJ;	Q94734;	1.27;	NITROPHORIN 4
1IO0;	Q9DEA6;	1.45;	TROPOMODULIN
1IQQ;	O80323;	1.50;	S3-RNase
1IS9;	P04955;	1.03;	endoglucanase A
1ISP;	P37957;	1.30;	lipase
1ITX;	P20533;	1.10;	Glycosyl Hydrolase
1IXG;	P0AG82;	1.05;	PHOSPHATE-BINDING PROTEIN
1IXH;	P0AG82;	0.98;	PHOSPHATE-BINDING PROTEIN
1IZP;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
1IZR;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
1J0O;	P00132;	1.15;	Cytochrome c3
1J0P;	P00132;	0.91;	Cytochrome c3
1J1M;	P02879;	1.50;	Ricin
1J8Q;	P00323;	1.35;	FLAVODOXIN
1J9E;	P00323;	1.44;	FLAVODOXIN
1JBE;	P0AE67;	1.08;	Chemotaxis protein CHEY
1JDR;	P00431;	1.50;	Cytochrome c Peroxidase
1JFB;	P23295;	1.00;	nitric-oxide reductase cytochrome P450 55A1
1JG2;	Q8TZR3;	1.50;	protein-L-isoaspartate O-methyltransferase
1JKS;	P53355;	1.50;	DEATH-ASSOCIATED PROTEIN KINASE
1JL1;	P0A7Y4;	1.30;	RIBONUCLEASE HI
1JM1;	Q53766;	1.11;	Rieske iron-sulfur protein soxF
1JND;	Q9V3D4;	1.30;	Imaginal disc growth factor-2
1JSE;	P00703;	1.12;	LYSOZYME
1JSF;	P61626;	1.15;	LYSOZYME
1JWR;	P61626;	1.40;	lysozyme
1JX6;	P54300;	1.50;	LUXP PROTEIN
1JXT;	P01542;	0.89;	Crambin
1JYK;	Q97QE9;	1.50;	CTP:phosphocholine Cytidylytransferase
1JZG;	P00282;	1.40;	AZURIN
1K2A;	P10153;	1.00;	eosinophil-derived neurotoxin
1K6A;	P23360;	1.14;	xylanase I
1K7C;	Q00017;	1.12;	rhamnogalacturonan acetylesterase
1K7J;	P0AFR4;	1.40;	Protein yciO
1K7K;	P52061;	1.50;	Hypothetical protein yggV
1KA1;	P32179;	1.30;	Halotolerance protein HAL2
1KF2;	P61823;	1.10;	pancreatic ribonuclease
1KF3;	P61823;	1.05;	pancreatic ribonuclease
1KGD;	O14936;	1.31;	PERIPHERAL PLASMA MEMBRANE CASK
1KMS;	P00374;	1.09;	DIHYDROFOLATE REDUCTASE
1KNG;	P30960;	1.14;	THIOL:DISULFIDE INTERCHANGE PROTEIN CYCY
1KOE;	P39061;	1.50;	ENDOSTATIN
1KOI;	Q94734;	1.08;	NITROPHORIN 4
1KOU;	P16113;	1.16;	PHOTOACTIVE YELLOW PROTEIN
1KPF;	P49773;	1.50;	PROTEIN KINASE C INTERACTING PROTEIN
1KQ6;	P14598;	1.18;	neutrophil cytosol factor 1
1KQW;	Q8UVG6;	1.38;	Cellular retinol-binding protein
1KT3;	P18902;	1.40;	Plasma retinol-binding protein
1KT6;	P18902;	1.10;	plasma retinol-binding protein
1KTH;	P12111;	0.95;	Collagen alpha 3(VI) chain
1KWF;	P04955;	0.94;	Endoglucanase A
1KY3;	P32939;	1.35;	GTP-BINDING PROTEIN YPT7P
1KYP;	N/A;	1.35;	Green Fluorescent Protein
1L3K;	P09651;	1.10;	HETEROGENEOUS NUCLEAR RIBONUCLEOPROTEIN A1
1LC3;	P46844;	1.50;	Biliverdin Reductase A
1LJN;	P00703;	1.19;	lysozyme C
1LKS;	P00698;	1.10;	LYSOZYME
1LN4;	P0AGK4;	1.50;	Hypothetical protein yhbY
1LRI;	P15570;	1.45;	Beta-elicitin cryptogein
1LS1;	O07347;	1.10;	SIGNAL RECOGNITION PARTICLE PROTEIN
1LTZ;	P30967;	1.40;	PHENYLALANINE-4-HYDROXYLASE
1LU4;	P0A618;	1.12;	SOLUBLE SECRETED ANTIGEN MPT53
1LUG;	P00918;	0.95;	Carbonic Anhydrase II
1LW9;	P00720;	1.45;	LYSOZYME
1LXZ;	P02883;	1.25;	Thaumatin I
1LYV;	P15273;	1.36;	PROTEIN-TYROSINE PHOSPHATASE YOPH
1LZ1;	P61626;	1.50;	HUMAN LYSOZYME
1LZB;	P00698;	1.50;	HEN EGG WHITE LYSOZYME
1LZI;	P16442;	1.35;	Glycosyltransferase A
1LZK;	O06441;	1.45;	HEROIN ESTERASE
1M2K;	O28597;	1.47;	Silent Information Regulator 2
1M40;	P62593;	0.85;	BETA-LACTAMASE TEM
1MB3;	Q9A5I4;	1.41;	cell division response regulator DivK
1MC2;	O57385;	0.85;	Acutohaemonlysin
1MF7;	P11215;	1.25;	INTEGRIN ALPHA M
1MJN;	P20701;	1.30;	Integrin alpha-L
1ML7;	Q94734;	1.25;	nitrophorin 4
1MLA;	P0AAI9;	1.50;	MALONYL-COENZYME A ACYL CARRIER PROTEIN TRANSACYLASE
1MOO;	P00918;	1.05;	Carbonic Anhydrase II
1MPL;	P15555;	1.12;	D-alanyl-D-alanine carboxypeptidase
1MQO;	P04190;	1.35;	Beta-lactamase II
1MSI;	P19614;	1.25;	TYPE III ANTIFREEZE PROTEIN ISOFORM HPLC 12
1MUW;	P15587;	0.86;	XYLOSE ISOMERASE
1MXT;	P12676;	0.95;	CHOLESTEROL OXIDASE
1N1P;	P12676;	0.95;	Cholesterol oxidase
1N1X;	P00669;	1.45;	Ribonuclease, seminal
1N40;	P0A514;	1.06;	Cytochrome P450 121
1N4U;	P12676;	0.95;	Cholesterol oxidase
1N4W;	P12676;	0.92;	Cholesterol oxidase
1N7E;	P97879;	1.50;	AMPA receptor interacting protein GRIP
1N9B;	P30896;	0.90;	BETA-LACTAMASE SHV-2
1NA5;	P11215;	1.50;	Integrin alpha-M
1NNF;	P35755;	1.10;	Iron-utilization periplasmic protein
1NNX;	P0ADU5;	1.45;	Protein ygiW
1NOF;	Q46961;	1.42;	xylanase
1NP4;	Q94734;	1.50;	PROTEIN (NITROPHORIN 4)
1NWA;	P0A5L0;	1.50;	Peptide methionine sulfoxide reductase msrA
1NWZ;	P16113;	0.82;	Photoactive yellow protein
1NZJ;	P27305;	1.50;	Hypothetical protein yadB
1O03;	P71447;	1.40;	beta-phosphoglucomutase
1O2I;	P00760;	1.50;	BETA-TRYPSIN
1O43;	P12931;	1.50;	PROTO-ONCOGENE TYROSINE-PROTEIN KINASE SRC
1O7U;	O96438;	1.50;	TRYPAREDOXIN
1O9G;	Q9F5K5;	1.50;	RRNA METHYLTRANSFERASE
1OC6;	Q9C1S9;	1.50;	CELLOBIOHYDROLASE II
1OC7;	Q9C1S9;	1.11;	CELLOBIOHYDROLASE II
1OCN;	Q9C1S9;	1.31;	CELLOBIOHYDROLASE II
1OCQ;	O85465;	1.08;	ENDOGLUCANASE 5A
1OD8;	P26514;	1.05;	ENDO-1,4-BETA-XYLANASE A
1ODM;	P05326;	1.15;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHASE
1OE1;	O68601;	1.04;	DISSIMILATORY COPPER-CONTAINING NITRITE REDUCTASE
1OEW;	N/A;	0.90;	ENDOTHIAPEPSIN
1OGW;	N/A;	1.32;	UBIQUITIN
1OI7;	P09143;	1.23;	SUCCINYL-COA SYNTHETASE ALPHA CHAIN
1OJR;	P32169;	1.35;	RHAMNULOSE-1-PHOSPHATE ALDOLASE
1ONG;	P0AD64;	1.10;	BETA-LACTAMASE SHV-1
1ONH;	Q59401;	1.38;	class C beta-lactamase
1OQ5;	P00918;	1.50;	Carbonic anhydrase II
1OT6;	P16113;	0.95;	Photoactive yellow protein
1OTE;	P16113;	1.40;	photoactive yellow protein, PYP
1OXD;	N/A;	1.15;	cyan fluorescent protein cfp
1P1M;	Q9X034;	1.50;	Hypothetical protein TM0936
1P36;	P00720;	1.45;	LYSOZYME
1P3C;	Q9EXR9;	1.50;	glutamyl-endopeptidase
1P5F;	Q99497;	1.10;	RNA-binding protein regulatory subunit
1P7S;	P00720;	1.50;	LYSOZYME
1PB7;	P35439;	1.35;	N-methyl-D-aspartate Receptor Subunit 1
1PBJ;	O27659;	1.40;	hypothetical protein
1PF3;	P36649;	1.50;	Blue copper oxidase cueO
1PM1;	Q26241;	1.10;	Nitrophorin 2
1POA;	P00598;	1.50;	PHOSPHOLIPASE A2
1PQ5;	P35049;	0.85;	Trypsin
1PTX;	P01484;	1.30;	SCORPION TOXIN II
1PW8;	P15555;	1.30;	D-alanyl-D-alanine carboxypeptidase
1PWC;	P15555;	1.10;	D-alanyl-D-alanine carboxypeptidase
1PWL;	P15121;	1.10;	aldose reductase
1PZ4;	N/A;	1.35;	N/A
1PZP;	P62593;	1.45;	Beta-lactamase TEM
1Q0N;	P26281;	1.25;	2-amino-4-hydroxy-6-hydroxymethyldihydropteridine pyrophosphokinase
1Q0R;	Q54528;	1.45;	aclacinomycin methylesterase
1Q2Q;	Q59401;	1.40;	class C beta-lactamase
1Q4A;	P42212;	1.45;	Green Fluorescent Protein
1Q92;	Q9NPB1;	1.40;	5(3)-deoxyribonucleotidase
1QAU;	P29476;	1.25;	NEURONAL NITRIC OXIDE SYNTHASE (RESIDUES 1-130)
1QDD;	P05451;	1.30;	LITHOSTATHINE
1QE3;	P37967;	1.50;	PARA-NITROBENZYL ESTERASE
1QFM;	P23687;	1.40;	PROTEIN (PROLYL OLIGOPEPTIDASE)
1QGQ;	P39621;	1.50;	PROTEIN (SPORE COAT POLYSACCHARIDE BIOSYNTHESIS PROTEIN SPSA)
1QGV;	P83876;	1.40;	SPLICEOSOMAL PROTEIN U5-15KD
1QIQ;	P05326;	1.50;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHASE
1QK8;	O96438;	1.40;	TRYPAREDOXIN-I
1QNJ;	P00772;	1.10;	ELASTASE
1QNP;	Q99036;	1.50;	ENDO-1,4-B-D-MANNANASE
1QQQ;	P0A884;	1.50;	THYMIDYLATE SYNTHASE
1QRE;	P40881;	1.46;	CARBONIC ANHYDRASE
1QTS;	P17427;	1.40;	AP-2 CLATHRIN ADAPTOR ALPHA SUBUNIT (ALPHA-ADAPTIN C)
1QTW;	P0A6C1;	1.02;	ENDONUCLEASE IV
1QV0;	Q27709;	1.10;	Obelin
1QV1;	Q27709;	1.10;	Obelin
1QWO;	O00092;	1.50;	phytase
1QWY;	O33599;	1.30;	peptidoglycan hydrolase
1QXY;	P0A078;	1.04;	methionyl aminopeptidase
1QYF;	P42212;	1.50;	green-fluorescent protein
1QYZ;	P04164;	1.40;	Cytochrome c-552
1QZ5;	P68135;	1.45;	Actin, alpha skeletal muscle
1R26;	Q9NG23;	1.40;	Thioredoxin
1R2Q;	P20339;	1.05;	Ras-related protein Rab-5A
1R5L;	P49638;	1.50;	PROTEIN (Alpha-tocopherol transfer protein)
1R6J;	O00560;	0.73;	Syntenin 1
1R6X;	P08536;	1.40;	ATP:sulfate adenylyltransferase
1RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
1RB0;	P26281;	1.35;	2-amino-4-hydroxy-6-hydroxymethyldihydropteridine pyrophosphokinase
1RE9;	P00183;	1.45;	Cytochrome P450-cam
1REX;	P61626;	1.50;	LYSOZYME
1RGZ;	P05364;	1.37;	class C beta-lactamase
1RH9;	Q93WT4;	1.50;	endo-beta-mannanase
1RHB;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
1RHS;	P00586;	1.36;	SULFUR-SUBSTITUTED RHODANESE
1RL0;	P24476;	1.40;	Antiviral protein DAP-30
1RL9;	P51541;	1.45;	Arginine kinase
1ROC;	P32447;	1.50;	Anti-silencing protein 1
1RPG;	P61823;	1.40;	RIBONUCLEASE A
1RQW;	P02883;	1.05;	thaumatin I
1RTQ;	Q01693;	0.95;	Bacterial leucyl aminopeptidase
1RTT;	Q9I4D4;	1.28;	conserved hypothetical protein
1RU2;	P26281;	1.48;	2-amino-4-hydroxy-6-hydroxymethyldihydropteridine pyrophosphokinase
1RUV;	P61823;	1.25;	RIBONUCLEASE A
1S0Q;	P00760;	1.02;	Trypsinogen
1S0R;	P00760;	1.02;	Trypsinogen
1S1F;	Q9FCA6;	1.50;	putative cytochrome P450
1S2O;	P74325;	1.40;	sucrose-phosphatase
1S3C;	P08692;	1.25;	Arsenate reductase
1S5S;	P00761;	1.40;	Trypsin
1S8N;	O06143;	1.48;	putative antiterminator
1SAU;	O28055;	1.12;	sulfite reductase, desulfoviridin-type subunit gamma
1SCW;	P15555;	1.13;	D-alanyl-D-alanine carboxypeptidase
1SDE;	P15555;	1.15;	D-alanyl-D-alanine carboxypeptidase
1SFS;	P84136;	1.07;	Hypothetical protein
1SHU;	P58335;	1.50;	Anthrax toxin receptor 2
1SI0;	Q9Z4N6;	1.35;	iron binding protein FbpA
1SI1;	Q9Z4N6;	1.45;	iron binding protein FbpA
1SI6;	O76745;	1.45;	salivary nitrophorin
1SJY;	Q9RVK2;	1.39;	MutT/nudix family protein
1SL9;	Q27709;	1.17;	Obelin
1ST3;	P29599;	1.40;	SUBTILISIN BL
1SV3;	P59071;	1.35;	Phospholipase A2
1SVN;	P29600;	1.40;	SAVINASE (TM)
1SVS;	P10824;	1.50;	Guanine nucleotide-binding protein G(i), alpha-1 subunit
1SXU;	Q94734;	1.40;	Nitrophorin 4
1SXW;	Q94734;	1.05;	Nitrophorin 4
1T1E;	Q8RR56;	1.18;	kumamolisin
1T1G;	Q8RR56;	1.18;	kumamolisin
1T1I;	Q8RR56;	1.28;	kumamolisin
1T2I;	P05798;	1.10;	Guanyl-specific ribonuclease Sa
1T3Y;	Q14019;	1.15;	Coactosin-like protein
1T68;	Q26241;	1.45;	Nitrophorin 2
1T7A;	P45697;	1.50;	Alpha-like neurotoxin BmK-I
1TF9;	P80561;	1.30;	Aminopeptidase
1TH6;	P59071;	1.23;	Phospholipase A2
1THF;	Q9X0C6;	1.45;	HISF PROTEIN
1THM;	P04072;	1.37;	THERMITASE
1TJE;	P0A8M3;	1.50;	Threonyl-tRNA synthetase
1TJM;	P21707;	1.18;	Synaptotagmin I
1TJX;	P21707;	1.04;	similar to synaptotagminI/p65
1TJY;	Q8Z2X8;	1.30;	sugar transport protein
1TKE;	P0A8M3;	1.46;	Threonyl-tRNA synthetase
1TKG;	P0A8M3;	1.50;	Threonyl-tRNA synthetase
1TKH;	P80561;	1.25;	Aminopeptidase
1TKJ;	P80561;	1.15;	Aminopeptidase
1TKY;	P0A8M3;	1.48;	Threonyl-tRNA synthetase
1TLD;	P00760;	1.50;	BETA-TRYPSIN
1TMJ;	P26281;	1.45;	2-amino-4-hydroxy-6-hydroxymethyldihydropteridine pyrophosphokinase
1TP6;	Q9I430;	1.50;	hypothetical protein PA1314
1TT8;	P26602;	1.00;	Chorismate-pyruvate lyase
1TUA;	Q9YE16;	1.50;	Hypothetical protein APE0754
1U0X;	Q94734;	1.45;	Nitrophorin 4
1U4G;	P14756;	1.40;	Elastase
1U9C;	Q5KWF3;	1.35;	APC35852
1UAS;	Q9FXT4;	1.50;	alpha-galactosidase
1UCA;	P23540;	1.48;	Ribonuclease MC
1UCS;	P35751;	0.62;	Antifreeze peptide RD1
1UG6;	Q8GEB3;	0.99;	beta-glycosidase
1UHA;	P83790;	1.50;	lectin-D2
1UI0;	Q7WYV4;	1.50;	Uracil-DNA Glycosylase
1UJP;	P16608;	1.34;	Tryptophan synthase alpha chain
1UKF;	Q52430;	1.35;	Avirulence protein AVRPPH3
1ULR;	Q5SKS6;	1.30;	putative acylphosphatase
1UNE;	P00593;	1.50;	PHOSPHOLIPASE A2
1UNQ;	P31749;	0.98;	RAC-ALPHA SERINE/THREONINE KINASE
1UOW;	P21707;	1.04;	SYNAPTOTAGMIN I
1UP9;	Q9L915;	1.35;	CYTOCHROME C3
1UPQ;	Q9H4M7;	1.48;	PEPP1
1URR;	Q9VF36;	1.50;	CG18505 PROTEIN
1US0;	P15121;	0.66;	ALDOSE REDUCTASE
1US5;	P83817;	1.50;	PUTATIVE GLUR0 LIGAND BINDING CORE
1UTM;	P35031;	1.50;	TRYPSIN I
1UTN;	P00760;	1.15;	TRYPSINOGEN
1UTO;	P00760;	1.15;	TRYPSINOGEN
1UTP;	P00760;	1.30;	TRYPSINOGEN
1UTQ;	P00760;	1.15;	TRYPSINOGEN
1UU4;	Q8NJY3;	1.49;	ENDO-BETA-1,4-GLUCANASE
1UUQ;	Q6QT42;	1.50;	MANNOSYL-OLIGOSACCHARIDE GLUCOSIDASE
1UUY;	Q39054;	1.45;	MOLYBDOPTERIN BIOSYNTHESIS CNX1
1UYL;	P07900;	1.40;	HEAT SHOCK PROTEIN HSP 90-ALPHA
1UZK;	P35555;	1.35;	FIBRILLIN-1
1UZW;	P05326;	1.30;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHETASE
1V0K;	P26514;	1.03;	ENDO-1,4-BETA-XYLANASE A
1V0U;	P84147;	1.42;	PHOSPHOLIPASE D
1V2X;	Q9FAC4;	1.50;	tRNA (Gm18) methyltransferase
1V30;	O58558;	1.40;	Hypothetical UPF0131 protein PH0828
1V3W;	O59257;	1.50;	ferripyochelin binding protein
1V7R;	O59580;	1.40;	hypothetical protein PH1917
1V7S;	P00698;	1.14;	Lysozyme C
1V8E;	Q53W25;	1.50;	putative glycerophosphoryl diester phosphodiesterase
1VD6;	Q53W25;	1.30;	Glycerophosphoryl Diester Phosphodiesterase
1VDQ;	P00698;	1.50;	Lysozyme C
1VE1;	N/A;	1.45;	O-acetylserine sulfhydrylase
1VF8;	O35744;	1.31;	secretory protein
1VHU;	O28751;	1.34;	Hypothetical protein AF1521
1VKK;	Q9ERL7;	1.35;	Glia maturation factor gamma
1VL9;	P00593;	0.97;	Phospholipase A2
1VLY;	P0ADE8;	1.30;	Unknown protein from 2D-page
1VYI;	P22363;	1.50;	RNA POLYMERASE ALPHA SUBUNIT
1VYK;	P12301;	1.49;	OXYGEN-EVOLVING ENHANCER PROTEIN 3
1VYP;	P71278;	1.27;	PENTAERYTHRITOL TETRANITRATE REDUCTASE
1VYR;	P71278;	0.90;	PENTAERYTHRITOL TETRANITRATE REDUCTASE
1W1D;	O15530;	1.50;	3-PHOSPHOINOSITIDE DEPENDENT PROTEIN KINASE-1
1W1G;	O15530;	1.45;	3-PHOSPHOINOSITIDE DEPENDENT PROTEIN KINASE-1
1W2L;	Q9F3S9;	1.30;	CYTOCHROME OXIDASE SUBUNIT II
1W3L;	O85465;	1.04;	ENDOGLUCANASE 5A
1W3U;	Q59196;	1.50;	PHOSPHOSERINE AMINOTRANSFERASE
1W3V;	P05326;	1.40;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHETASE
1W66;	Q10404;	1.08;	LIPOYLTRANSFERASE
1W9M;	N/A;	1.35;	HYDROXYLAMINE REDUCTASE
1WCW;	Q5SKH2;	1.30;	Uroporphyrinogen III synthase
1WDP;	P10538;	1.27;	Beta-amylase
1WDR;	P10538;	1.35;	Beta-amylase
1WLY;	Q59I44;	1.30;	2-haloacrylate reductase
1WMA;	P16152;	1.24;	Carbonyl reductase [NADPH] 1
1WMD;	Q93UV9;	1.30;	protease
1WR5;	P00132;	1.40;	Cytochrome c3
1WRM;	Q9NRW4;	1.50;	dual specificity phosphatase 22
1WSD;	Q99405;	1.50;	M-protease
1WTM;	P00698;	1.33;	Lysozyme C
1WTN;	P00698;	1.13;	Lysozyme C
1WU4;	Q9KB30;	1.35;	xylanase Y
1WVH;	Q04205;	1.50;	Tensin
1X1R;	O08989;	1.30;	Ras-related protein M-Ras
1X3S;	Q9NP72;	1.32;	Ras-related protein Rab-18
1X6X;	P02973;	0.96;	Fimbrial protein
1X6Z;	P02973;	0.78;	Fimbrial protein
1X82;	N/A;	1.50;	N/A
1X8N;	Q94734;	1.08;	Nitrophorin 4
1X8R;	P0A6D3;	1.50;	3-phosphoshikimate 1-carboxyvinyltransferase
1X96;	P15121;	1.40;	aldose reductase
1X9D;	Q9UKM7;	1.41;	Endoplasmic reticulum mannosyl-oligosaccharide 1,2-alpha-mannosidase
1XBI;	P54066;	1.45;	50S ribosomal protein L7Ae
1XEO;	P0A6K3;	1.30;	Peptide deformylase
1XGK;	O59919;	1.40;	NITROGEN METABOLITE REPRESSION REGULATOR NMRA
1XMK;	P55265;	0.97;	Double-stranded RNA-specific adenosine deaminase
1XPH;	Q9H2X3;	1.41;	CD209 antigen-like protein 1
1XUG;	P00760;	1.50;	TRYPSIN
1XUI;	P00760;	1.50;	TRYPSIN
1XWT;	Q8RJN8;	1.30;	endo-1,4-beta-xylanase
1Y1Z;	P35439;	1.50;	Glutamate [NMDA] receptor subunit zeta 1
1Y5A;	P00760;	1.40;	Trypsin, cationic
1Y8A;	O28835;	1.40;	hypothetical protein AF1437
1Y9L;	P0A1X2;	1.50;	Lipoprotein mxiM
1Y9U;	Q7VXW9;	1.39;	putative iron binding protein
1YHH;	P42212;	1.50;	green fluorescent protein
1YLJ;	Q9L5C8;	0.98;	beta-lactamase CTX-M-9a
1YMN;	P61823;	1.45;	Ribonuclease pancreatic
1YMR;	P61823;	1.50;	Ribonuclease pancreatic
1YQS;	P15555;	1.05;	D-alanyl-D-alanine carboxypeptidase
1YRC;	P00183;	1.40;	Cytochrome P450-cam
1YS2;	P22088;	1.50;	Lipase
1YT4;	P62593;	1.40;	Beta-lactamase TEM
1YWA;	Q94734;	0.89;	nitrophorin 4
1YWB;	Q94734;	0.97;	nitrophorin 4
1YXL;	P60045;	1.48;	Phospholipase A2 isoform 3
1Z1Q;	N/A;	1.50;	Green Fluorescent Protein
1Z2P;	Q9XYQ1;	1.22;	inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate 5/6-kinase
1Z3N;	Q5U031;	1.04;	aldose reductase
1Z53;	P00431;	1.13;	Cytochrome c peroxidase, mitochondrial
1Z6N;	Q9I4A4;	1.50;	hypothetical protein PA1234
1Z70;	Q8NBK3;	1.15;	C-alpha-formyglycine-generating enzyme
1Z89;	Q5U031;	1.43;	aldose reductase
1Z8A;	P15121;	0.95;	aldose reductase
1ZBF;	Q9KEI9;	1.50;	ribonuclease H-related protein
1ZBZ;	P00431;	1.29;	Cytochrome c peroxidase
1ZCE;	Q8UC50;	1.30;	hypothetical protein Atu2648
1ZD8;	Q9UIJ7;	1.48;	GTP:AMP phosphotransferase mitochondrial
1ZHV;	Q8UHE1;	1.50;	hypothetical protein Atu0741
1ZHX;	P35844;	1.50;	KES1 protein
1ZI8;	P0A114;	1.40;	Carboxymethylenebutenolidase
1ZIZ;	P16442;	1.49;	ABO blood group (transferase A, alpha 1-3-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase; transferase B, alpha 1-3-galactosyltransferase)
1ZLB;	Q8AXY1;	0.97;	hypotensive phospholipase A2
1ZMA;	Q8DP51;	1.25;	bacterocin transport accessory protein
1ZQ5;	P42330;	1.30;	Aldo-keto reductase family 1 member C3
1ZU3;	P45697;	1.33;	Alpha-like neurotoxin BmK-I
1ZWP;	P59071;	1.10;	Phospholipase A2 VRV-PL-VIIIa
1ZYV;	P45697;	1.50;	Alpha-like neurotoxin BmK-I
1ZZK;	P61978;	0.95;	Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein K
2A3F;	Q26241;	1.40;	Nitrophorin 2
2A3U;	P0AD64;	1.34;	Beta-lactamase SHV-1
2A9Y;	Q9TVW2;	1.35;	adenosine kinase
2AA9;	P0A6D3;	1.50;	3-phosphoshikimate 1-carboxyvinyltransferase
2ABA;	P71278;	1.05;	pentaerythritol tetranitrate reductase
2ABB;	P71278;	1.00;	pentaerythritol tetranitrate reductase
2ABS;	Q9TVW2;	1.10;	adenosine kinase
2ACP;	Q26241;	1.40;	Nitrophorin 2
2AFY;	Q8NBK3;	1.49;	Sulfatase modifying factor 1
2AGK;	P40545;	1.30;	1-(5-phosphoribosyl)-5-[(5-phosphoribosylamino)methylideneamino] imidazole-4-carboxamide isomerase
2AGT;	P15121;	1.00;	Aldose reductase
2AH4;	P00760;	1.13;	beta-trypsin
2AHN;	P50694;	1.30;	Thaumatin-like protein
2AMS;	P80176;	1.40;	High potential iron-sulfur protein
2ANY;	P03952;	1.40;	plasma kallikrein, light chain
2APC;	P27115;	1.50;	Alpha-1,3-mannosyl-glycoprotein 2-beta-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase
2AQD;	P00431;	1.35;	Cytochrome c peroxidase, mitochondrial
2AS2;	P00431;	1.45;	Cytochrome c peroxidase, mitochondrial
2ASZ;	Q94734;	1.07;	Nitrophorin 4
2AT5;	Q94734;	1.22;	Nitrophorin 4
2AW1;	P00918;	1.46;	Carbonic anhydrase II
2AWK;	N/A;	1.15;	green fluorescent protein
2AX2;	P00918;	1.50;	Carbonic anhydrase II
2B02;	P27540;	1.50;	Aryl hydrocarbon receptor nuclear translocator
2B3H;	P53582;	1.10;	Methionine aminopeptidase 1
2B3L;	P53582;	1.50;	Methionine aminopeptidase 1
2B5H;	P21816;	1.50;	Cysteine dioxygenase type I
2BAX;	P00593;	1.10;	Phospholipase A2
2BCH;	P00593;	1.10;	Phospholipase A2
2BFQ;	O28751;	1.50;	HYPOTHETICAL PROTEIN AF1521
2BJS;	P05326;	1.30;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHETASE
2BLO;	P00772;	1.33;	ELASTASE 1
2BLP;	P61823;	1.40;	RIBONUCLEASE PANCREATIC PRECURSOR
2BLQ;	P00772;	1.33;	ELASTASE 1
2BLR;	P02883;	1.40;	THAUMATIN I
2BLX;	P00698;	1.40;	LYSOZYME C
2BLZ;	P61823;	1.40;	RIBONUCLEASE PANCREATIC
2BMW;	P21890;	1.50;	FERREDOXIN--NADP REDUCTASE
2BOD;	P26222;	1.50;	ENDOGLUCANASE E-2
2BOE;	P26222;	1.15;	ENDOGLUCANASE E-2
2BOQ;	O94753;	1.33;	VERSATILE PEROXIDASE VPL2
2BU9;	P05326;	1.30;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHETASE
2BV9;	P16218;	1.50;	ENDOGLUCANASE H
2BW4;	P25006;	0.90;	COPPER-CONTAINING NITRITE REDUCTASE
2BWK;	P21570;	1.50;	ANGIOGENIN
2BY2;	Q9RX51;	1.50;	MALTOOLIGOSYLTREHALOSE TREHALOHYDROLASE
2BY5;	P00760;	1.30;	CATIONIC TRYPSIN
2BY7;	P00760;	1.30;	CATIONIC TRYPSIN
2BZZ;	P10153;	0.98;	NONSECRETORY RIBONUCLEASE
2C01;	P10153;	1.24;	NONSECRETORY RIBONUCLEASE
2C1I;	Q8DP63;	1.35;	PEPTIDOGLYCAN GLCNAC DEACETYLASE
2C60;	Q99759;	1.25;	HUMAN MITOGEN-ACTIVATED PROTEIN KINASE KINASE KINASE 3 ISOFORM 2
2C71;	Q4CFF1;	1.05;	GLYCOSIDE HYDROLASE, FAMILY 11:CLOSTRIDIUM CELLULOSOME ENZYME, DOCKERIN TYPE I:POLYSACCHARIDE DEACETYLASE:CARBOHYDRATE BINDING MODULE, FAMILY 6
2C78;	Q5SHN6;	1.40;	ELONGATION FACTOR TU-A
2C79;	Q4CFF1;	1.50;	GLYCOSIDE HYDROLASE, FAMILY 11:CLOSTRIDIUM CELLULOSOME ENZYME, DOCKERIN TYPE I:POLYSACCHARIDE DEACETYLASE:CARBOHYDRATE BINDING MODULE, FAMILY 6
2C8O;	P00698;	1.50;	LYSOZYME C
2CBZ;	P33527;	1.50;	MULTIDRUG RESISTANCE-ASSOCIATED PROTEIN 1
2CCW;	P56275;	1.13;	AZURIN II
2CD7;	P0A006;	1.50;	PROTEIN ARSC
2CE0;	Q93VA3;	1.24;	CYTOCHROME C6
2CE2;	P01112;	1.00;	GTPASE HRAS
2CFE;	N/A;	1.50;	ALLERGEN
2CGI;	P00698;	1.35;	LYSOZYME C
2CI1;	N/A;	1.08;	NG,NG-DIMETHYLARGININE DIMETHYLAMINOHYDROLASE 1
2CIP;	P16218;	1.40;	ENDOGLUCANASE H
2CIW;	P04963;	1.15;	CHLOROPEROXIDASE
2CL2;	Q874E3;	1.35;	PUTATIVE LAMINARINASE
2CL6;	P01112;	1.24;	GTPASE HRAS
2CLC;	P01112;	1.30;	GTPASE HRAS
2CM2;	P18031;	1.50;	TYROSINE-PROTEIN PHOSPHATASE NON-RECEPTOR TYPE 1
2CM5;	P47709;	1.28;	RABPHILIN-3A
2CNQ;	P27616;	1.00;	PHOSPHORIBOSYLAMINOIMIDAZOLE-SUCCINOCARBOXAMIDE SYNTHASE
2CNU;	N/A;	1.05;	PHOSPHORIBOSYLAMINOIMIDAZOLE-SUCCINOCARBOXAMIDE SYNTHASE
2COH;	Q72IY7;	1.50;	Transcriptional Regulator
2CTB;	P00730;	1.50;	CARBOXYPEPTIDASE A
2CWS;	Q75WP3;	1.00;	alginate lyase A1-II'
2CXV;	P13901;	1.40;	Probable protein P3C
2CYG;	O22317;	1.45;	beta-1, 3-glucananse
2CZ2;	Q9WVL0;	1.40;	Maleylacetoacetate isomerase
2CZ9;	O58107;	1.50;	Probable galactokinase
2D01;	P16113;	1.34;	Photoactive yellow protein
2D02;	P16113;	1.42;	Photoactive yellow protein
2D1S;	P13129;	1.30;	Luciferin 4-monooxygenase
2D6B;	P00698;	1.25;	lysozyme C
2DDX;	Q9LCB9;	0.86;	beta-1,3-xylanase
2DEA;	Q01693;	1.24;	Bacterial leucyl aminopeptidase
2DEJ;	O58107;	1.50;	Probable galactokinase
2DQ6;	P04825;	1.50;	Aminopeptidase N
2DV8;	P59071;	1.40;	Phospholipase A2 VRV-PL-VIIIa
2E39;	P28313;	1.30;	Peroxidase
2ENG;	P43316;	1.50;	ENDOGLUCANASE V
2ERF;	P07996;	1.45;	Thrombospondin-1
2ERW;	Q95P16;	1.40;	serine protease inhibitor infestin
2ESK;	P62837;	1.36;	Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 D2
2EU2;	P00918;	1.15;	Carbonic anhydrase 2
2EUG;	P12295;	1.50;	PROTEIN (GLYCOSYLASE)
2EUO;	P00431;	1.45;	cytochrome c peroxidase
2EUP;	P00431;	1.40;	cytochrome c peroxidase
2EUT;	P00431;	1.12;	cytochrome c peroxidase
2EVW;	P01112;	1.05;	GTPase HRas
2EW0;	Q6FF54;	1.40;	hypothetical protein ACIAD0353
2EWI;	P00132;	1.00;	Cytochrome c3
2F18;	Q24451;	1.30;	Alpha-mannosidase II
2F21;	Q13526;	1.50;	Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase NIMA-interacting 1
2F2Q;	P00720;	1.45;	Lysozyme
2F5T;	Q7LYW4;	1.45;	archaeal transcriptional regulator TrmB
2F5V;	Q8J136;	1.41;	Pyranose 2-oxidase
2F7O;	Q24451;	1.43;	alpha-mannosidase II
2F7P;	Q24451;	1.28;	alpha-mannosidase II
2F7R;	N/A;	1.35;	alpha-mannosidase II
2FB6;	Q8A7V2;	1.46;	conserved hypothetical protein
2FBA;	P08017;	1.10;	Glucoamylase GLU1
2FE5;	Q92796;	1.10;	Presynaptic protein SAP102
2FE6;	P00183;	1.50;	Cytochrome P450-cam
2FG1;	Q8A8B0;	1.25;	conserved hypothetical protein BT1257
2FGB;	P42330;	1.35;	Aldo-keto reductase family 1 member C3
2FGO;	Q9I6D2;	1.32;	Ferredoxin
2FI1;	Q97RK1;	1.40;	hydrolase, haloacid dehalogenase-like family
2FLA;	P80176;	0.95;	High-potential iron-sulfur protein
2FMA;	P05067;	0.85;	Amyloid beta A4 protein precursor
2FOQ;	P00918;	N/A;	Carbonic anhydrase 2
2FOS;	P00918;	1.10;	Carbonic Anhydrase II
2FR3;	P29373;	1.48;	Cellular retinoic acid binding protein 2
2FSQ;	Q8UJ27;	1.40;	Atu0111 protein
2FST;	Q16539;	1.45;	Mitogen-activated protein kinase 14
2FT6;	P00282;	1.25;	Azurin
2FVV;	O95989;	1.25;	Diphosphoinositol polyphosphate phosphohydrolase 1
2FVY;	P0AEE5;	0.92;	D-galactose-binding periplasmic protein
2FWG;	P36655;	1.10;	Thiol:disulfide interchange protein dsbD
2FWQ;	P42212;	1.40;	Green fluorescent protein
2FXU;	P68135;	1.35;	Actin, alpha skeletal muscle
2FZ8;	P15121;	1.48;	aldose reductase
2FZB;	Q5U031;	1.50;	aldose reductase
2FZD;	Q5U031;	1.08;	aldose reductase
2FZU;	P42212;	1.25;	Green fluorescent protein
2G29;	P73452;	1.50;	Nitrate transport protein nrtA
2G2C;	Q6NJA6;	1.50;	Putative molybdenum cofactor biosynthesis protein
2G5V;	P00760;	1.45;	Cationic trypsin
2G6E;	P42212;	1.30;	Green fluorescent protein
2G7B;	P29373;	1.18;	Cellular retinoic acid-binding protein 2
2GEW;	P12676;	0.97;	Cholesterol oxidase
2GG0;	P0AE18;	1.28;	Methionine aminopeptidase
2GG2;	P0AE18;	1.00;	Methionine aminopeptidase
2GG3;	P0AE18;	1.45;	Methionine aminopeptidase
2GH2;	P21816;	1.50;	Cysteine dioxygenase type I
2GI9;	Q56193;	1.14;	Immunoglobulin B1 binding domain of protein G
2GKE;	P44859;	1.35;	Diaminopimelate epimerase
2GKG;	N/A;	1.00;	response regulator homolog
2GKO;	N/A;	1.40;	microbial serine proteinases; subtilisin
2GKP;	Q9K0T5;	1.35;	hypothetical protein NMB0488
2GKR;	P68436;	1.16;	Ovomucoid
2GKT;	P68436;	1.23;	Ovomucoid
2GOU;	Q8EEC8;	1.40;	oxidoreductase, FMN-binding
2GQT;	Q5SJC8;	1.30;	UDP-N-Acetylenolpyruvylglucosamine Reductase
2GS5;	Q6NEA9;	1.50;	Conserved hypothetical protein
2GS8;	N/A;	1.50;	mevalonate pyrophosphate decarboxylase
2GTF;	Q26241;	1.40;	Nitrophorin-2
2GWM;	P55220;	1.50;	65 kDa virulence protein
2GXG;	Q96ZY1;	1.45;	146aa long hypothetical transcriptional regulator
2GZQ;	Q4Y719;	1.30;	Phosphatidylethanolamine-binding protein
2GZS;	Q6KD95;	1.40;	IroE protein
2GZV;	Q9NRD5;	1.12;	PRKCA-binding protein
2H2T;	P06734;	1.30;	Low affinity immunoglobulin epsilon Fc receptor (Lymphocyte IgE receptor) (Fc-epsilon-RII) (Immunoglobulin E-binding factor) (CD23 antigen)
2H5S;	P0AD64;	1.28;	SHV-1 beta-lactamase
2H7Q;	P00183;	1.50;	Cytochrome P450-cam
2HBW;	Q3M7N3;	1.05;	NLP/P60 protein
2HC1;	P23467;	1.30;	Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase beta
2HC2;	P23467;	1.40;	Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase beta
2HD9;	O58764;	1.35;	UPF0310 protein PH1033
2HDO;	Q88YA8;	1.50;	Phosphoglycolate phosphatase
2HE4;	Q15599;	1.45;	Na(+)/H(+) exchange regulatory cofactor NHE-RF2
2HPH;	P0AEE5;	1.33;	D-galactose-binding periplasmic protein
2HQ2;	Q8X5N8;	1.45;	Putative heme/hemoglobin transport protein
2HSH;	Q5T937;	1.35;	Thioredoxin
2HU6;	Q2M1L9;	1.32;	Macrophage metalloelastase
2HXM;	P13051;	1.30;	Uracil-DNA glycosylase
2I16;	Q5U031;	0.81;	Aldose reductase
2I17;	Q5U031;	0.81;	Aldose reductase
2I1U;	P0A616;	1.30;	Thioredoxin
2I24;	N/A;	1.35;	New Antigen Receptor PBLA8
2I49;	Q55460;	1.35;	Bicarbonate transporter
2I4A;	N/A;	1.00;	thioredoxin
2ID8;	P06873;	1.27;	Proteinase K
2IGD;	Q54181;	1.10;	PROTEIN G
2IHL;	P00701;	1.40;	JAPANESE QUAIL EGG WHITE LYSOZYME
2IKG;	P15121;	1.43;	Aldose reductase
2IPN;	P0AEE5;	1.15;	D-galactose-binding periplasmic protein
2IVI;	N/A;	1.30;	ISOPENICILLIN N SYNTHETASE
2IW1;	P25740;	1.50;	LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDE CORE BIOSYNTHESIS PROTEIN RFAG
2IWN;	O75970;	1.35;	MULTIPLE PDZ DOMAIN PROTEIN
2IWR;	Q99490;	1.50;	CENTAURIN GAMMA 1
2IWX;	P02829;	1.50;	ATP-DEPENDENT MOLECULAR CHAPERONE HSP82
2IXM;	Q15257;	1.50;	SERINE/THREONINE-PROTEIN PHOSPHATASE 2A REGULATORY SUBUNIT B'
2IYS;	P0A4Z2;	1.40;	SHIKIMATE KINASE
2IYV;	P0A4Z2;	1.35;	SHIKIMATE KINASE
2IZR;	Q9Y6M4;	1.30;	CASEIN KINASE I ISOFORM GAMMA-3
2JC5;	N/A;	1.50;	EXODEOXYRIBONUCLEASE
2JC9;	P49902;	1.50;	CYTOSOLIC PURINE 5'-NUCLEOTIDASE
2JCP;	P15379;	1.30;	CD44 ANTIGEN
2JG0;	N/A;	1.50;	PERIPLASMIC TREHALASE
2NQ6;	P53582;	1.50;	Methionine aminopeptidase 1
2NRT;	Q9WYA3;	1.50;	UvrABC system protein C
2NT3;	O68522;	1.30;	Response regulator homolog
2NT4;	O68522;	1.02;	Response regulator homolog
2NUH;	Q9PFN8;	1.39;	Periplasmic divalent cation tolerance protein
2NUM;	Q02762;	1.50;	Ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase iron-sulfur subunit
2NVE;	Q02762;	1.50;	Ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase iron-sulfur subunit
2NVF;	Q02762;	1.50;	Ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase iron-sulfur subunit
2NVG;	Q02762;	1.35;	Ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase iron-sulfur subunit
2NWD;	P61628;	1.04;	Lysozyme C
2NWF;	Q02762;	N/A;	Ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase iron-sulfur subunit
2NXT;	P00918;	1.15;	carbonic anhydrase 2
2NZL;	Q9UJM8;	1.35;	Hydroxyacid oxidase 1
2O2X;	Q98I56;	1.50;	hypothetical protein
2O7R;	Q0ZPV7;	1.40;	CXE carboxylesterase
2OA2;	Q9K9C9;	1.41;	BH2720 protein
2OBW;	Q8ZRM2;	1.45;	Hydroxyacylglutathione hydrolase
2OC3;	Q99952;	1.50;	Tyrosine-protein phosphatase non-receptor type 18
2OCS;	Q15599;	1.50;	Na(+)/H(+) exchange regulatory cofactor NHE-RF2
2OG5;	Q9Z4Z5;	1.45;	Putative oxygenase
2OKT;	Q5HEY3;	1.30;	O-succinylbenzoic acid synthetase
2OSX;	O33853;	1.10;	Endoglycoceramidase II
2OVO;	P67954;	1.50;	OVOMUCOID THIRD DOMAIN
2OXS;	P00760;	1.32;	Cationic trypsin
2OXU;	P39900;	1.24;	Macrophage metalloelastase
2OZF;	O14745;	1.50;	Ezrin-radixin-moesin-binding phosphoprotein 50
2OZT;	Q8DJP8;	1.42;	Tlr1174 protein
2P8G;	O07006;	1.36;	Phenolic acid decarboxylase
2PC1;	Q8DYC0;	1.28;	Acetyltransferase, GNAT family
2PEV;	P15121;	0.90;	Aldose reductase
2PFH;	P15121;	0.85;	Aldose reductase
2PHY;	P16113;	1.40;	PHOTOACTIVE YELLOW PROTEIN
2PKC;	P06873;	1.50;	PROTEINASE K
2PRK;	P06873;	1.50;	PROTEINASE K
2PVB;	P02619;	0.91;	PROTEIN (PARVALBUMIN)
2RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
2RN2;	P0A7Y4;	1.48;	RIBONUCLEASE H
2SGA;	P00776;	1.50;	PROTEINASE A
2SNS;	P00644;	1.50;	THERMONUCLEASE PRECURSOR
2SRC;	P12931;	1.50;	TYROSINE-PROTEIN KINASE SRC
3EUG;	P12295;	1.43;	PROTEIN (GLYCOSYLASE)
3LZT;	P00698;	0.93;	LYSOZYME
3MSI;	P19614;	1.43;	TYPE III ANTIFREEZE PROTEIN ISOFORM HPLC 12
3PYP;	P16113;	0.85;	PHOTOACTIVE YELLOW PROTEIN
3RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
3SEB;	P01552;	1.48;	STAPHYLOCOCCAL ENTEROTOXIN B
4EUG;	P12295;	1.40;	PROTEIN (GLYCOSYLASE)
4LZT;	P00698;	0.95;	LYSOZYME
4PTI;	P00974;	1.50;	TRYPSIN INHIBITOR
4RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
5CYT;	P81459;	1.50;	CYTOCHROME C
5PTI;	P00974;	1.00;	TRYPSIN INHIBITOR
5PTP;	P00760;	1.34;	BETA TRYPSIN
5RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
7A3H;	O85465;	0.95;	ENDOGLUCANASE
7ATJ;	P00433;	1.47;	PEROXIDASE C1A
7RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
8RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A
9PTI;	P00974;	1.22;	BOVINE PANCREATIC TRYPSIN INHIBITOR
9RAT;	P61823;	1.50;	RIBONUCLEASE A